First solution (by Yassine Hamdi) Consider a group of m girls and n boys and count in two ways the number of ways to choose a subgroup of n people. On the one hand, this number is clearly (nm+n). On the other hand, choosing this subgroup amounts to first choosing the number k of girls who will be in it (0⩽k⩽m), then choosing the girls ((km) choices), then the boys ((n−kn) choices). Thus:
(mm+n)=k=0∑m(km)(n−kn)=k=0∑m(km)(kn)
where we used the fact that (n−kn)=(kn) for the second equality.
Second solution (by Hizir Nuhoglu) Consider a rectangle of length n and width m: We are interested in the paths starting from the bottom left vertex (coordinates (0,0)) and
ending at the top right (coordinates
(n,m)) by making only unit steps to the right or up. According to a TD exercise, their number is
(mm+n). On the other hand, any of these paths crosses a point with coordinates
(k,m−k) with
0⩽k⩽m (points on the red diagonal in the figure). The number of paths from
(0,0) to
(k,m−k) is
(km), and the number of paths from
(k,m−k) to
(n,m) is
(n−kn)=(kn). Thus
(mm+n)=k=0∑m(km)(kn)
Third solution and generalization (by Nicolas Heutte) If we consider m+1 numbers in a row a0,a1,…,am and form a "descending" Pascal's triangle from this original row, the m+1-th row will contain a single number which is
a0(0m)+a1(1m)+⋯+⋯am(mm)
We perform this operation starting from the m+1 first numbers of the n-th row of Pascal's triangle, which are (0n),(1n),…,(mn). We obtain that the number on the n+m−1-th row in the m-th place is
k=0∑m(km)(kn)
By construction of Pascal's triangle, this number is also (mm+n), which concludes.
It is possible to generalize this formula: let u⩾0 be an integer such that u⩽n−m+2. Then, by performing the previous reasoning, but starting from the m+1 consecutive numbers from the u-th number of the n-th row of Pascal's triangle, we obtain:
k=0∑m(km)(k+un)=(m+um+n)
Fourth solution (by induction) We recall that (nm)=0 if n>m or if n<0. We reason by induction on m+n. More precisely, for an integer j⩾0, let Pj be the property
!
FIGURE 1 - Interlude: the Sierpinski triangle
"For all integers m,n⩾0 such that m+n=j, we have:
k⩾0∑(kn)(km)=(mm+n) and k⩾0∑(k−1n)(km)=(m−1m+n)′′
Initialization: P0 is true.
Hereditary: Suppose Pj is true and prove Pj+1. Let m,n⩾0 be integers such that m+n=j+1. We write, using Pascal's relation many times:
k⩾0∑(kn)(km)=k⩾0∑((kn−1)+(k−1n−1))(km)=k⩾0∑(kn−1)(km)+k⩾0∑(k−1n−1)(km)=(mm+n−1)+(m−1m+n−1)=(mm+n)
where we used the induction hypothesis to write the penultimate equality (which is valid, as m+n−1=j).
Similarly, we have:
k⩾0∑(k−1n)(km)=k⩾0∑(k−1n)((km−1)+(k−1m−1))=k⩾0∑(k−1n)(km−1)+k⩾0∑(k−1n)(k−1m−1)=(m−2m+n−1)+(m−1m+n−1)=(m−1m+n)
where we used the induction hypothesis to write the penultimate equality (which is valid, as m+n−1=j)