Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 200 of 300 #1600 of 1964

Problem 1600

National Olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Algebra Difficulty 7.4 Prove it

Let (an)n≥1(a_n)_{n\geq 1} be a sequence for real numbers given by a1=1/2a_1=1/2 and for each positive integer nn
an+1=an2an2−an+1. a_{n+1}=\frac{a_n^2}{a_n^2-a_n+1}.
Prove that for every positive integer nn we have a1+a2+⋯+an<1a_1+a_2+\cdots + a_n<1.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

1. Define the sequence transformation:
Let bn=1an b_n = \frac{1}{a_n} . Then, the given recurrence relation for an a_n transforms as follows:
an+1=an2an2−an+1 a_{n+1} = \frac{a_n^2}{a_n^2 - a_n + 1}
implies
1an+1=an2−an+1an2 \frac{1}{a_{n+1}} = \frac{a_n^2 - a_n + 1}{a_n^2}
which simplifies to
bn+1=an2−an+1an2=1−an−1an2=1−1an+1an2=bn2−bn+1. b_{n+1} = \frac{a_n^2 - a_n + 1}{a_n^2} = 1 - \frac{a_n - 1}{a_n^2} = 1 - \frac{1}{a_n} + \frac{1}{a_n^2} = b_n^2 - b_n + 1.

2. Simplify the recurrence relation:
We have
bn+1=bn2−bn+1. b_{n+1} = b_n^2 - b_n + 1.
Consider the transformation:
bn+1−1bn−1=bn. \frac{b_{n+1} - 1}{b_n - 1} = b_n.

3. Telescoping product:
Multiplying these relations for n=1,2,…,k n = 1, 2, \ldots, k , we get:
∏i=1kbi+1−1bi−1=∏i=1kbi. \prod_{i=1}^{k} \frac{b_{i+1} - 1}{b_i - 1} = \prod_{i=1}^{k} b_i.
This simplifies to:
bk+1−1=b1b2⋯bk(b1−1). b_{k+1} - 1 = b_1 b_2 \cdots b_k (b_1 - 1).

4. **Express 1bn \frac{1}{b_n} :**
From the above, we have:
bn+1=b1b2⋯bn+1. b_{n+1} = b_1 b_2 \cdots b_n + 1.
Therefore,
1bn=1b1b2⋯bn−1−1b1b2⋯bn. \frac{1}{b_n} = \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 \cdots b_{n-1}} - \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 \cdots b_n}.

5. Telescoping sum:
Summing the above expression from n=1 n = 1 to n=k n = k , we get:
∑i=1k1bi=(1b1−1b1b2)+(1b1b2−1b1b2b3)+⋯+(1b1b2⋯bk−1−1b1b2⋯bk). \sum_{i=1}^{k} \frac{1}{b_i} = \left( \frac{1}{b_1} - \frac{1}{b_1 b_2} \right) + \left( \frac{1}{b_1 b_2} - \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 b_3} \right) + \cdots + \left( \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 \cdots b_{k-1}} - \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 \cdots b_k} \right).
This telescopes to:
∑i=1k1bi=1−1b1b2⋯bk. \sum_{i=1}^{k} \frac{1}{b_i} = 1 - \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 \cdots b_k}.

6. Conclusion:
Since b1=2 b_1 = 2 (because a1=12 a_1 = \frac{1}{2} ), we have:
∑i=1nai=∑i=1n1bi=1−1b1b2⋯bn. \sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{b_i} = 1 - \frac{1}{b_1 b_2 \cdots b_n}.
Since bi>1 b_i > 1 for all i i , it follows that b1b2⋯bn>1 b_1 b_2 \cdots b_n > 1 , and thus:
∑i=1nai<1. \sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i < 1.
Therefore, we have proved that for every positive integer n n :
a1+a2+⋯+an<1. a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n < 1.
■\blacksquare

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.