Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 112 of 400 #1112 of 1964

Problem 1112

National Olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.1 Prove it

Let's decide whether there exists a positive integer nn such that nn is divisible by exactly 2000 different prime numbers, and 2n+12^{n}+1 is divisible by nn.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

We will show that for every positive integer kk, there exists a positive integer nn such that (2n+1)(2^n + 1) is divisible by nn, and nn has exactly kk prime factors.

(Thus, for k=2000k=2000, such an nn also exists.)

We will prove the statement by complete induction on kk. For k=1k=1, it is true: 9∣29+19 \mid 2^9 + 1.

For k=2k=2: 9⋅19∣29⋅19+19 \cdot 19 \mid 2^{9 \cdot 19} + 1.

Assume that it is true for kk (k≥2k \geq 2):

p12p2p3…pk∣2p12p2p3…pk+1,p1=3 p_{1}^{2} p_{2} p_{3} \ldots p_{k} \mid 2^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} p_{3} \ldots p_{k}} + 1, \quad p_{1}=3

We need to show that it is also true for k+1k+1. Let pk+1p_{k+1} be a prime number greater than pkp_{k}, and pk+1∣2pk+1p_{k+1} \mid 2^{p_{k}} + 1. 2pk≡−1( mod pk+1)2^{p_{k}} \equiv -1 \quad (\bmod p_{k+1}), and thus 2p12p2p3…pkpk+1≡(−1)p12p2p3…pk−1pk+1=−1( mod pk+1)2^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} p_{3} \ldots p_{k} p_{k+1}} \equiv (-1)^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} p_{3} \ldots p_{k-1} p_{k+1}} = -1 \quad (\bmod p_{k+1}), which means pk+1∣2p12p2p3…pkpk+1+1p_{k+1} \mid 2^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} p_{3} \ldots p_{k} p_{k+1}} + 1. On the other hand, by the induction hypothesis, p12p2…pk∣2p12p2…pk+1p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k} \mid 2^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k}} + 1, so 2p12p2…pk≡−1( mod p12p2…pk)⋅2p12p2…pkpk+1≡(−1)pk+1=−1( mod p12p2…pk)⋅p12p2…pkpk+1∣2p12p2…pkpk+1+12^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k}} \equiv -1 \quad (\bmod p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k}) \cdot 2^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k} p_{k+1}} \equiv (-1)^{p_{k+1}} = -1 \quad (\bmod p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k}) \cdot p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k} p_{k+1} \mid 2^{p_{1}^{2} p_{2} \ldots p_{k} p_{k+1}} + 1, because p12⋅p2⋯⋅pkp_{1}^{2} \cdot p_{2} \cdots \cdot p_{k} and pk+1p_{k+1} are relatively prime. Thus, for k+1k+1, n=p12⋅p2⋯⋯pk⋅pk+1n = p_{1}^{2} \cdot p_{2} \cdots \cdots p_{k} \cdot p_{k+1} is suitable, which completes the inductive proof.

Lemma: If pp is a prime, then (2p+1)\left(2^{p} + 1\right) has a prime divisor greater than pp.

Proof. Let qq be a prime divisor of (2p+1)\left(2^{p} + 1\right) that is not greater than pp. Then q>2q > 2 and

2p≡−1( mod q). Squaring 22p≡1( mod q) 2^{p} \equiv -1 (\bmod q). \quad \text{ Squaring } \quad 2^{2p} \equiv 1 (\bmod q)

By Fermat's Little Theorem, 2q−1≡1( mod q)2^{q-1} \equiv 1 (\bmod q). From this, using the Euclidean algorithm, we get 2(2p,q−1)≡1( mod q)2^{(2p, q-1)} \equiv 1 (\bmod q). Since p∣q−1p \mid q-1, we have 22p≡1( mod q)2^{2p} \equiv 1 (\bmod q). But 2p≡−1( mod q)2^{p} \equiv -1 (\bmod q), which is a contradiction. Therefore, (2p+1)\left(2^{p} + 1\right) must have a prime divisor greater than pp.

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.